Hello again,
I was going through the Vulgate and came across "beati mites quoniam ipsi possidebunt terram".
Shouldn't the verb have been at the end of the sentence? Or is the author trying to emphasize "terram"?
By the way, what role does "ipsi" serve here? The sentence seems fine without it.
Thank you.
I was going through the Vulgate and came across "beati mites quoniam ipsi possidebunt terram".
Shouldn't the verb have been at the end of the sentence? Or is the author trying to emphasize "terram"?
By the way, what role does "ipsi" serve here? The sentence seems fine without it.
Thank you.