Why does the saying “Ne bis in idem” (or, more often but less incorrectly I think, “Non bis in idem”) have the form “idem” and not the ablative form “eodem”? Shouldn’t “in” take the ablative when it means “in, within, inside”. If it here means “into”, requiring the accusative, what might the implied verb be?
As the saying is probably neo-Latin, could it possibly be just a mistake by someone who wanted to express things in Latin but failed to consider inflection? Perhaps “idem” is used just...
Why accusative in “Ne bis in idem”?
As the saying is probably neo-Latin, could it possibly be just a mistake by someone who wanted to express things in Latin but failed to consider inflection? Perhaps “idem” is used just...
Why accusative in “Ne bis in idem”?